You dont know what Im getting at, yet you acknowledge in this very suggestion that the buyer is considered a "madman" for his action? you don't see anything wrong with this situation?

As I said, your first line literally says why this isn't valid. It's a pretty common situation even: any two sales between two parties where both trades are very lopsided (especially so shortly after each other) should not be used for suggestion purposes. The only irregular situation here is that it is usually the other way round (like the situation here before it was re-bought), where someone pays a very high amount just to sell it for ~half of what they paid not too long after (to a buyer, or to the same person they initially bought for).

As such, I'll be closing this.