With all due respect, I have read the rules (and now re-read them) and don't really understand what I'm breaking or not following here. I used to do price suggestions some years ago and using classifieds was always a valid reason to alter a range to represent the current market even if there were some sales further ago that suggest a wider range in the price. Some of my suggestions even got denied because classified listings did not entirely support the sales/buys and suggested a smaller range for example. If this policy has changed I understand that. And I will re-suggest all of the price suggestions you have commented on but will keep this one open for now to give you time to answer :)

EDIT: Just adding a little bit, I genuinely would like to ask why including singular sales in the range is more important than representing the current market value that is supported by both the clear majority of the range and by current market listings. I understand that the prices can vary and that variance can and perhaps should be somewhat included in the price range and in this particular situation where there are 10 buys @ 1.33 ref I definitely can understand it. But I am asking about all of my suggestions here, where sometimes you asked me to include prices that had maybe 2 or 3 sales at that price when the suggested values sometimes had dozens of sales. Don't the rules specifically say to use common trading points?